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Author Topic: Intellectual Property [Locked]
Brother_Tempus  3 stars
Title: Patriot
Posts: 985
Registered: 2001-1-9 08:07:00
Gibbon_raver posted:

Brother_Tempus posted:

Gibbon_raver posted:

other than the extremism of your opinion, since you presented a premise, then the burden of proof is upon you.



IP does not exist in nature like inalienable rights do, it is an artificial construct that lacks consent from all parties involved

This lack of consent means there must be a means to coerce all those who do not consent to accept the terms of the construct. The power of force is granted to the institution of government and so government is granted the power to grant and enforce IP through force [ ie imprisonment or wealth confiscation ]

Since this construct designates only one individual the rights to distribute the identified goods, it becomes a monopoly. This monopoly is immoral because it attempts through the use of force provided by the state to stop individuals from sharing knowledge amongst each other, thus enslaving the knowledge to just one master



I do not see any "proof"



then you need to reread it

 

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Hawkson  4 stars
Title: I AM AN ASSASSIN (SHH)
Posts: 1,791
Registered: 2001-10-23 22:57:09
Please, if you're going to go pseudo-intellectual, at least use the right there.

 

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Gibbon_raver  2 stars
Posts: 390
Registered: 2004-4-11 15:45:47
Brother_Tempus posted:

Gibbon_raver posted:

Brother_Tempus posted:

Gibbon_raver posted:

other than the extremism of your opinion, since you presented a premise, then the burden of proof is upon you.



IP does not exist in nature like inalienable rights do, it is an artificial construct that lacks consent from all parties involved

This lack of consent means there must be a means to coerce all those who do not consent to accept the terms of the construct. The power of force is granted to the institution of government and so government is granted the power to grant and enforce IP through force [ ie imprisonment or wealth confiscation ]

Since this construct designates only one individual the rights to distribute the identified goods, it becomes a monopoly. This monopoly is immoral because it attempts through the use of force provided by the state to stop individuals from sharing knowledge amongst each other, thus enslaving the knowledge to just one master



I do not see any "proof"



It is only "proof" if I accept a number of "givens" and "assumptions" presented in your conjecture, i.e.,
"inalienable rights exist in nature",
"ownership of an invention\design\idea is not natural",
"a visual\real\functional creation is an artificial construct". I would continue, but I am getting kicked out of the building, lol.

In any case, I am done with this derailing.


then you need to reread it

 

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