Yukishiro1 posted:

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I don't see why. If you sell someone a gun legally and they shoot themselves why is that different than if you sell them a gun illegally and they shoot themselves? In terms of liability for the shooting itself?

If you poison someone with a legal poison or an illegal poison I can assure you it doesn't change whether you've committed murder. The question here is entirely to do with what constitutes killing someone, not to do with the product chosen.

It really has to do with whether the alcoholic had any choice in whether he drunk the stuff.

For example, it is definitely murder if you come across someone already drunk off their ass and then give them a gallon of vodka, knowing full well they arn't in a mental state to be able to refuse it, hoping they will die, and then they do die.

This is a bit different because it happens over a period of time when the guy obviously wasn't drunk all the time. But if Ed was giving him the Everclear *when* the guy was drunk that makes it more likely to be murder.

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NuEM posted:

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I remember the case of one woman basically trolling a girl enough until she committed suicide. I think that's somewhat similar to this question.

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